Exactly what is considered "no vig"? You state a 100 bet to win 100 is "no vig". ( 1/1)  I have heard others state that it is simply the absence of a house cut. Still others define it as "even odds"-- one person not having an edge over the outcome of the game after having calculated either point or money spreads to "balance" the game so the favorite will not have an overwhelming advantage over the underdog. Another calls no vig offer as a market of 100%.

I offer the following example using decimal.

Bengals -2.5      2.0
Browns +2.5      2.0


Bengals -2.5     1.76
Browns +2.5     2.31

Both have a market of 100%

Are both considered "no vig" ?


 -Hey Tom, I'll do my best.

- The bookmaker's commission on a losing bet; also known as juice in sports betting.
Generally when a player is laying 1/1 there is no vig in his bet but there could be be extra vig added to the other team.
eg: Ravens -3 EV    Bets on this team would be VIG free
      Bears +3 -120   Bets on this team would be paying extra vig from the usual -110 
For a house not to charge VIG the player would always be laying 1/1.
The Bookie